God, therefore, calls Israel His “son” for these reasons. He begat them as His own nation, distinct from all the other nations of the world. And as such Israel is His heir, destined to possess and rule over the earth with Him as a son with the father. This is the first part of the special two-fold relationship that Israel holds with God.
The term “wife” describes another relationship; one that is the result of marriage and that involves the
joining together of two persons to form a unity of being. A marriage is a living union relationship and
the terms “husband” and “wife” describe the man and the woman as being in that kind of relationship
one with another. In marriage a man and a woman join themselves together, cleaving unto each other
in a covenanted bond, to produce a living union relationship in which they will live selflessly for each
other. As such it is a relationship designed by God to provide for the joys of intimacy of fellowship
associated with a living union of persons and for the expression of agape love in all areas; spiritually,
soulishly, and physically.
In designating Israel as His “wife” this is the kind of intimate relationship that God had entered into
with his nation. He had joined Himself to them in a living union relationship. He had cleaved unto them in a covenanted bond producing a living union in which He would live selflessly for them and they were to live selflessly for Him. As His “wife” Israel is in a relationship with God in which He has provided for them to experience the joys of intimacy of fellowship with Him and to receive, and respond to, the expressions of His agape love for them. And as His “wife” they are to be His glory, just as the woman is to be the glory of the man. (1 Cor 11:7; Isa 46:13) They are to glorify Him in this world as His “wife.” (Isa 60:21)
Though a lot more could be said about these two terms and the significance of them, this gives you the
basic reason for why Israel would be spoken of by God as both a “son” and a “wife”.
The second question you asked was this: “Paul says he will present us ‘as a chaste virgin to Christ:’
Because of rightly dividing I don’t think we are the bride of Christ, but can you show Biblically who
are the bride of Christ?” I agree with you that we are not the bride of Christ. We are designated “the
body of Christ” and that is a different kind of living union relationship to Christ than that of marriage.
The two creations that God has formed for Himself in accordance with His two-fold plan and purpose
(Israel and the body of Christ) both have a living union relationship with God. But the two living
union relationships are not the same. Marriage is a living union relationship and being members of a
body is a living union relationship. But they are not the exact same kind of relationship. Failure to
understand and appreciate this, along with just plain failing to “rightly divide the word of truth,’ is
one of the main reasons why people think that the body of Christ is the bride of Christ. The other
main reason is that most Christians have such a weak understanding of God’s program with Israel that
they don’t even realize that the expression “the bride of Christ” would clearly belong to Israel, in view
of what has taken place in their program.
I can only give you the briefest synopsis of this, but it is the key to fully appreciating that the designation “the bride of Christ” belongs to Israel. (In connection with this you need to read and go over the passages and contexts of at least the following verses: Deut 26:17; Jer 2:1-3, 31-3:1; 3:7-203 31:31-32; Isa 50:1ff; 54:1ff; Hosea 1-6; especially 2:14-23; Isa 62:1ff; Rev 19:1ff; 21:2-3, 9-21)
When God brought Israel out of Egypt He entered into the living union marriage relationship with
them. He “avouched” Himself unto her as His wife and she “avouched” herself unto Him as her husband. But Israel broke her marriage vows and became an adulteress. According to the terms of the Law covenant He had the right to put her away. And He did this, which is part of what was involved in the Assyrian/Babylonian captivities. But God did not put her away as might be done by any man giving his wife a bill of divorcement. Rather, though He put her away. He made provision for receiving her back unto Himself. He made provision to be betrothed to her again and to establish the living union relationship of marriage again, but this time in perfection. He made provision for her to be His bride again and to no longer play the harlot and be an adulteress. In fact, He made provision to establish the living union relationship of marriage with her again that exceeded that which had previously existed between them. He made provision for a marriage relationship in which He and she, as husband and wife, would experience the fullness of what the living union relationship was all about, even to the point of Him being in living union with the land He had given to Abraham. The provision for establishing this new and better marriage was the cross of Christ. And when the time came for the provision to be fulfilled God began to deal with Israel just as Hosea 2:14ff declared He would. He began to “allure her, and bring her into the wilderness, and speak comfortably unto her.”
He began a process of events that would see her betrothed to Him again. That would see her as His
bride again. This is what John the Baptist’s ministry was the beginning of.
Israel was God’s wife and will be again according to the provision of His grace and love unto her to
make her His bride again. On the basis of Jer 3:1ff; 31:31-32, and Hosea 1-2, to cite just three passages,
the “bride of Christ” can be none other than the one He originally married in the days of Moses.
That’s Israel, pure and simple.
Your third question asks, “Have you any Biblical supported way of seeing God the Holy Spirit as
female? Hebrew is female, I’m told” No. If the gender of the Hebrew language is supposed to be proof
for female, then what of the Greek where it is neuter. But more than that, though the Greek may be
neuter the Greek masculine personal pronoun is used to refer to the Holy Spirit. So, all three genders
are used. The definitive answer as to how the Holy Spirit is to be looked upon is contained in two
issues: 1) The aforementioned use of the Greek masculine personal pronoun when referring to Him. 2)
The fact that He is the particular member of the Godhead spoken of as being directly responsible for
conceiving Christ’s body in the womb of Mary (Matt 1:20; Luke 1:35). Mary is female, the Holy Spirit is
not.
Your fourth question asks, “In your book you show ‘Hallmark Blessings’ as healings and casting out
devils; what about ‘release from captives?” There are a great number of blessings that Israel will enjoy
once the kingdom of heaven is established on the earth. Dozens upon dozens could be listed from the
things spoken about by Isaiah alone. When I used the expression “hallmark blessings, (which of
course is an expression I coined; it isn’t found in the Bible), I did so because of what being sick and
having Satan’s devils in the land was designed to mean to Israel. Those two issues, more than any of
the other consequences of Israel’s failure to comply with the Law contract, should have indicated to
them how apostate the nation was in God’s eyes. The curse of physical infirmities was part of the very
first course of punishment that the Law covenant called for, and it began following Joshua’s days and
continued unabated right on through to when Christ came to them. The curse of Satan’s devils being
allowed to infiltrate and inundate the land began when they became Satan’s “lawful captive” at the
beginning of the fifth course of punishment spoken about in the Law. And it too increased, until at the
time when Christ came the devils were literally every place throughout the land of Israel. By these two
“hallmark curses” Israel was to know the depth of their apostasy and that they were in a predicament
from which they could not deliver themselves. For this reason deliverance from these two issues is
talked about the most when it comes to describing the blessings of the kingdom. Therefore, I called
them the “hallmark blessings” of the kingdom. And I believe this is justified not only on the basis of
what I just pointed out, but especially because the signs of the kingdom spoken about in the Gospels
are most of the time summarized as being these two issues. In fact, in connection with describing them to the rebellious Pharisees the Lord said, “But if I with the finger of God cast out devils, no doubt the kingdom of God is come upon you.” (Luke 11:20) There should have been “no doubt” regarding what these these two signs meant, especially the casting out of devils. They were highly significant to Israel, in view of the history of God’s dealings with them. They possessed a hallmark feature about them. (Note: Another fascinating issue to consider regarding these two blessings is that they were the first two signs ever given to the nation Israel by God. When God sent Moses into Egypt to deliver them, He gave him some signs to perform, of which the first two correspond to the two “hallmark blessings” of the kingdom.)
Both the issue of individual release from captivity and the issue of Israel’s national release from
captivity will be blessings enjoyed once the kingdom is established. And this will be enjoyed along
with all the rest of the hundreds of blessings promised Israel.
Your fifth question concerns me speaking of “the sons of God as angels” and why. There are about 5
different ways in which the expression “son(s) of God” is used in Scripture.
1.) The Lord Jesus Christ is “the Son of God” (the Son of the Highest”; “the Son of the Father”) in
connection with the Davidic Covenant. In that covenant God declared that Adonai Jehovah, the
Word, the expressive member of the Godhead, would enflesh Himself in the seed of David and would
be “a child born” and “a son given.” As such He would be “the only begotten Son of God.” Being God
and man He would be “the Son of God” and “the Son of man.”
2.) The expression “sons of God” is also used to describe ones who have been spiritually regenerated
and hence belong to God. (For example, John 1:12)
3.) We in this dispensation of grace are called “the sons of God” in accordance with having received
“the adoption of sons.’ (For example, Romans 8:14-15; Galatians 4:1-7)
4.) Adam, in particular, is referred to as “the son of God.” (Luke 3:38) He is given this designation
because he was a direct creation of God. He came directly from the creative activity of God.
5.) In similar manner to Adam being designated a “son of God” because He was directly created by
God, so also can angels be so designated. (For example, Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7; Dan 3:25, 28) For they too are
the direct creations of God. But in addition to this they are referred to as the “sons of God” because
they dwell in the heavenly places; in God’s realm and presence, rather than on the earth. For this
reason Adam too was called “the son of God” For before he sinned, he dwelt in God’s presence in
Eden.
You asked a sixth question by way of a p.s.: “Why do you avoid the use of 1 Corinthians 4:4, the ‘god
of this world’?” I don’t avoid the use of it. The issues dealt with in the book, and the survey-purpose of
the book, did not allow for each of the 40 different names, titles, and designations that Satan has to be
cited and expounded upon. However, m Corinthians 4:4 was dealt with in a fundamental way in
Chapter 11, pages 358-359.
Well, I hope my responses are of some help to you. I appreciated hearing from you and for you giving
me the opportunity to be of assistance to you. Again, I apologize for the delay in answering your letter.
Rejoicing in God’s grace with you,
Keith R. Blades
God, therefore, calls Israel His “son” for these reasons. He begat them as His own nation, distinct from all the other nations of the world. And as such Israel is His heir, destined to possess and rule over the earth with Him as a son with the father. This is the first part of the special two-fold relationship that Israel holds with God.
The term “wife” describes another relationship; one that is the result of marriage and that involves the joining together of two persons to form a unity of being. A marriage is a living union relationship and the terms “husband” and “wife” describe the man and the woman as being in that kind of relationship one with another. In marriage a man and a woman join themselves together, cleaving unto each other in a covenanted bond, to produce a living union relationship in which they will live selflessly for each other. As such it is a relationship designed by God to provide for the joys of intimacy of fellowship associated with a living union of persons and for the expression of agape love in all areas; spiritually, soulishly, and physically.
In designating Israel as His “wife” this is the kind of intimate relationship that God had entered into with his nation. He had joined Himself to them in a living union relationship. He had cleaved unto them in a covenanted bond producing a living union in which He would live selflessly for them and they were to live selflessly for Him. As His “wife” Israel is in a relationship with God in which He has provided for them to experience the joys of intimacy of fellowship with Him and to receive, and respond to, the expressions of His agape love for them. And as His “wife” they are to be His glory, just as the woman is to be the glory of the man. (1 Cor 11:7; Isa 46:13) They are to glorify Him in this world as His “wife.” (Isa 60:21)
Though a lot more could be said about these two terms and the significance of them, this gives you the basic reason for why Israel would be spoken of by God as both a “son” and a “wife”.
The *second* question you asked was this: “Paul says he will present us ‘as a chaste virgin to Christ:’ Because of rightly dividing I don’t think we are the bride of Christ, but can you show Biblically who are the bride of Christ?” I agree with you that we are not the bride of Christ. We are designated “the body of Christ” and that is a different kind of living union relationship to Christ than that of marriage. The two creations that God has formed for Himself in accordance with His two-fold plan and purpose (Israel and the body of Christ) both have a living union relationship with God. But the two living union relationships are not the same. Marriage is a living union relationship and being members of a body is a living union relationship. But they are not the exact same kind of relationship. Failure to understand and appreciate this, along with just plain failing to “rightly divide the word of truth,’ is one of the main reasons why people think that the body of Christ is the bride of Christ. The other main reason is that most Christians have such a weak understanding of God’s program with Israel that they don’t even realize that the expression “the bride of Christ” would clearly belong to Israel, in view of what has taken place in their program.
I can only give you the briefest synopsis of this, but it is the key to fully appreciating that the designation “the bride of Christ” belongs to Israel. (In connection with this you need to read and go over the passages and contexts of at least the following verses: Deut 26:17; Jer 2:1-3, 31-3:1; 3:7-20, 31:31-32; Isa 50:1ff; 54:1ff; Hosea 1-6; especially 2:14-23; Isa 62:1ff; Rev 19:1ff; 21:2-3, 9-21)
When God brought Israel out of Egypt He entered into the living union marriage relationship with them. He “avouched” Himself unto her as His wife and she “avouched” herself unto Him as her husband. But Israel broke her marriage vows and became an adulteress. According to the terms of the Law covenant He had the right to put her away. And He did this, which is part of what was involved in